McPeak
Lecture 6
PPA 723
Constrained
consumer choice.
What is the optimal bundle?
The bundle of goods that
makes the consumer as well off as possible given a particular budget
constraint. The bundle consumed at the
point where the indifference curve is tangent to the budget line.
Graph with points a, b, c, d.
B is the optimal bundle.
C is not, as it is not in the
opportunity set.
A is in the opportunity set,
but has less of good 1 and 2 than b, so must be inferior.
D is in the opportunity set,
and has more of good one, less of good 2.
By looking at the indifference curves and knowing their properties, we
can rule it out.
Technical note:
A solution is an interior
solution if the optimal bundle involves the consumer consuming positive amounts
of both goods.
A solution is a corner
solution if the optimal bundle involves the consumer consuming zero of one of
the goods.
We will focus on interior
solutions.
For an interior solution, the
marginal rate of substitution equals the marginal rate of transformation. We know these expressions have other forms,
so we can write the expanded equality for the condition of an interior solution
as follows:

A nice way to think about it
is that the optimal bundle equates the marginal utility per dollar spent on
good 1 with the marginal utility per dollar spent on good 2.

Remember, MRS is the rate at
which a consumer is willing to give up one good to get more of the other. It comes from the underlying preferences of
the consumer.
MRT is the rate at which
prices let a consumer give up one good to get more of the other. It comes from the underlying market
conditions and has nothing to do with the consumer’s preferences.
Show corner solution. In this case, the indifference curve is not tangent to the budget line, since reality intrudes.
The underlying preferences
cause this, and since we take preferences as given, we can run across
this. It happens when the consumer has a
strong preference for one good as compared to the other.
Food stamp
example.
Consider good 1 is food, good two is all other goods.
Food stamps are given to the consumer, that can only be spent on food. $100 worth let us say.
Graph.
Shape of
indifference curves matters here. Is the consumer better off getting $100 cash
or $100 in food stamps.
Graph for equally well off.
Graph for worse off.
Note in both cases,
consumption of the other good has increased in spite of the fact that the
program is targeted at food.
General result – a subsidy
program that constrains consumer choice will do worse or no better than an
unconstrained transfer.
Why do we constrain the
transfer in the case of food stamps then?
What is the impact on the
budget constraint of a black market in food stamps that lets you get 30 cents
on the dollar face value?
Show graph.
(Chapter
5).
How do we derive a demand
curve?
Remember that we began the
course by taking a supply curve and a demand curve as given. Now we are going to find out where a demand
curve comes from.
Ingredients: Budget line, Indifference curves, Variation
Go back to our basic budget
line:
p1* x1 +p2*
x2=Y
first with:
Y=100, p1 =10,
and p2 = 5
Then consider
Y=100, p1 =5,
and p2 = 5
Y=100, p1 =20,
and p2 = 5
On the same
graph.
[graph]

Draw some indifference curves
on this.

The line connecting these
points traces out the price consumption curve (5,5) ; (10,5) ; (20, 5). In this case, it is a horizontal line due to
the simple form I picked for utility.

We can summarize the
information in this form.
All else constant, how does a
change in price impact the quantity demanded for a given good. Sound familiar? This is the derivation of the individual’s
demand curve for a particular good.
The line traced out by this,
the price consumption curve, will reflect the individual’s underlying
preferences. For a different individual
(one who has less of a preference for x2 than the individual just considered),
we would get the following result.

|
|
Price |
|
6 |
10 |
|
14 |
5 |
|
28 |
2.5 |

Now, if we take each
individual’s demand curve and sum them horizontally, we end up with the market
demand.
At a price of 10, consumer 1
wants 5 and consumer 2 wants 6. 11
At a price of 5, consumer 1
wants 10 and consumer 2 wants 14. 24
At a price of 2.5, consumer 1
wants 20 and consumer 2 wants 28. 48

What about a change in
income?
p1* x1 +p2*
x2=Y
first with:
Y=50, p1 =10,
and p2 = 5
Y=100, p1 =10,
and p2 = 5
Y=150, p1 =10,
and p2 = 5

The line connecting the
optimal bundles defined by increasing income is the Income – Consumption curve.
At a given price of 10 for
good one, we can draw these quantities on a price quantity graph to illustrate
the idea of demand shifts.

The graph traced out by
placing income on the y axis and quantity on the x axis is called an Engel
curve. I traces
out the relationship between the quantity demanded of a single good and income.

Remember the idea of income elastiticites from before.
Here is where they come from. A
normal good has a positive income elasticity, an
inferior good has a negative income elasticity.
What is the formula for an income elasticity?
A good can be normal for one
person and inferior for another.
A good can be normal for one
person at one point in their life and inferior at another.
A good can be normal at one
level of income and inferior at another.
We can block out space from
an optimal bundle to areas where both goods are normal, one good is normal and
the other inferior.
Can both goods be inferior?
Show on graph.
What is the impact of a price
change?
First, we identify the change
in the quantity demanded as a result of a price change as the total
effect.
We decompose this total
effect into two distinct components.
1)
The substitution
effect. If utility and the price of the
other good are held constant, as the price of one good rises, consumers
substitute between the two goods to reflect the new price ratio.
Since MRS=MRT, price change
leads to a change in MRT, the consumer will adjust the consumption bundle along
the indifference curve to re-equate MRS and MRT.
2)
The income
effect. An
change in price changes the consumers buying power. Recall the example of how a having of prices
is equivalent to a doubling of income.
This is the core idea here. If
the price of good one goes down all else held constant, that is going to
increase the consumer’s buying power which is like increasing their income.
Total effect = substitution
effect + income effect.
Since indifference curves are
downward sloping, can we predict the sign of the substitution effect? The change in price and the substitution
effect should have opposite signs. An
increase in price leads to less of the good being consumed. A decrease in price leads to more of a good
being consumed.
Show graph.
However, the income effect
depends on whether the good is a normal or an inferior good.
A Giffen
good is one for which a decrease in price causes quantity demanded to fall (the
income effect outweighs the substitution effect, making the total effect
negative). Not observed in reality, but
an interesting example.
Show graphs for substitution
effect for normal good, inferior good, and Giffen good.
For edification / inoculation:
This graphically represents what in economics is known as
the Slutsky equation.
It describes the relationship between two different approaches to deriving the demand function: One, a money income held constant derivation (the Marshallian), and a second utility held constant derivation (the Hicksian).